kolte
November 24th, 2005, 10:14 AM
I was thinking about it, seeing as how so many people ask about it, and this is what I came up with. If the 'cum' is sparse and more clearish, then would it not be senseable that the body was producing more semeanal fluid in the prostate, and not as much seman in the testicles? Therefor the 'cum' would be more washed out looking?
Well, if this is the answer, then all of you who have a clearer cum are just not old enough or far enough along in puberty to produce in in large amounts. But its only a thought, its bound to be completly false. What do you think? Does this not sound reasonable?
Well, if this is the answer, then all of you who have a clearer cum are just not old enough or far enough along in puberty to produce in in large amounts. But its only a thought, its bound to be completly false. What do you think? Does this not sound reasonable?